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A brief thought on questions of Pauline authorship

I’ve finally made my way through Paul’s undisputed letters in Greek and am now aiming to read all the epistles this summer (having already read 1-3 John, James, 2 Peter, and Jude — the latter two because of the recent discussion of sodomy). This has been an excellent exercise for shoring up my Greek skills, but the main intellectual result has been to soften or nuance some of my views on Paul. First of all, I realize that I went into this project believing that I would find some clear overarching “Pauline system,” but that ran aground in Galatians — there’s something about having to work through a text in agonizing detail that makes it very difficult to breeze over things, which I was predisposed to do whenever I came across the clear contradictions in Galatians.

The solution, it seems, is to recognize change and development in Paul’s thought, which seems a sensible enough position in retrospect but which was apparently unavailable to me initially because of an unreflected-upon “scriptural authority” that Paul the man, if not all the letters under the name of Paul, still had for me. Once it is permissible to assume that Paul’s position is evoluving, though, I wonder how much the question of authorship matters.

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Translating St. Paul: Any human day?

Reading 1 Corinthians, I came across the following strange wording:

ἐμοὶ δὲ εἰς ἐλάχιστόν ἐστιν ἵνα ὑφ’ ὑμῶν ἀνακριθῶ ἢ ὑπὸ ἀνθρωπίνης ἡμέρας· ἀλλ’ οὐδὲ ἐμαυτὸν ἀνακρίνω·
But with me it is a very small thing that I should be judged by you or by any human court. I do not even judge myself. (4:3 NRSV)

The bolded Greek words seem to be “by any human day” rather than “court.” Is this an idiom I’m missing? Is it meant to contrast the “Day of the Lord” with “human days”? (If it’s the latter, I wonder if there is an economical translation that could capture that aspect a little better than “any human court.”)

The collection in 2 Corinthians

One of the biggest benefits of going through Paul’s letters in Greek hasn’t been a flood of nuance — though there are some ideological or traditional distortions in the translations, for the most part they seem to be perfectly good — but simply being forced to slow down and study things in detail. Nowhere has that benefit been greater than in 2 Corinthians, where the fun ranting part in 10-13 has always led me to underplay the first 9 chapters, which actually contain some really interesting material that provide the greatest support for a “liberation” reading of Paul.

2 Corinthians provides the greatest detail concerning one of Paul’s greatest goals, which also seems to motivate his writing of Romans: the collection for the poor of Judea. Put briefly, it appears to be a desire to fulfill the prophecies that the nations will bring tribute to Israel — but it does an end-run around the powers and authorities of both groups, instead going for a grass-roots level offering from the poor of the nations to the poor of Israel. Perhaps this can inform what we’ve been discussing in previous posts about Paul’s call for the Gentiles to abandon idolatry: instead of stopping with that purely negative gesture, favoring the poor (particularly the poor of Israel) becomes a concrete way of identifying with the God of Israel.

What’s unclear to me is how we should understand what Paul was doing in Corinth and how he managed to attract an apparent critical mass of rich or powerful “converts.” He says over and over again that the Corinthians are his “boast” — perhaps getting the rich and powerful to go along with his mission represents a kind of tour de force (navigating the camel through the eye of the needle, so to speak)? And perhaps allowing other, poorer churches to provide support instead of letting the rich Corinthians keep him as a kind of “court philosopher” was a strategic move to humble them?

Another thought: exactly who was in charge of compiling these letters? Read the rest of this entry »

Paul’s Two Minds on the Law: Or, Paul’s One Mind on the Jews

In recent months, I have been advancing a fairly “strong” reading of the authentic letters of Paul, with Romans 9-11 as the guiding thread on his relationship to Judaism. As I’ve been going through the letters in Greek, though, my reading completely ran aground on Galatians. It seems clear that any attempt to get one consistent position from Paul on this issue is impossible, and that’s because Paul is always responding to events — as indeed his very mission to the Gentiles is a response to an event (the apocalyptic vision of Christ).

I’ve also been reading Gershom Scholem’s work on messianism in the last couple weeks, and based on what he says there, I’d say that Paul starts out as an “anarchist” messianist (as opposed to the kind of messianist who thinks the law will be intensified in the messianic age) — perhaps because the coming of the messiah required the ingathering of the Gentiles, Paul concludes that the law loses its force for the new messianic era. Read the rest of this entry »

More on Galatians: “Living like a Gentile”

Yesterday vividly illustrated the dangers of diving into Paul after having gone through a Greek textbook by oneself — some readers have been put off by the seeming self-centeredness of the whole “we blog for our own benefit” thing, but in the Greek translation posts, I’m making up for my lack of formal classroom instruction in Greek.

I promised more on Galatians 2, and here’s something that doesn’t seem to require me to delve too deeply into the Greek text. Before the long monologue, Paul reports that he asked Peter the following: “If you, though a Jew, live like a Gentile and not like a Jew, how can you compel the Gentiles to live like Jews?” The question I have is what “living like a Gentile” means in this context.

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Translating St. Paul: δωρεὰν

This summer, I’m trying to work my way through the authentic letters of Paul as thoroughly as possible in Greek. I’m going through Galatians right now, and the monologue at the end of chapter 2 has me simply baffled:

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Some reflections on 2 Maccabees

In comments to a recent post of mine on works righteousness and Judaism in the letters of Paul, Bruce Rosenstock called attention to the broader apocalyptic significance of Paul’s mission to the Gentiles, which is a kind of subplot in God’s plan for Israel. As we discussed the significance of the cross in that apocalyptic vision — which I have tended to understand in terms of showing the Roman Empire to be illegitimate — Bruce suggested that I look at 2 Maccabees. I reread it this afternoon, and now I’d like to offer some provisional thoughts on it, in the hopes of getting others to read it and getting a broader conversation started.

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Works righteousness and Judaism

We know that Paul, in all his letters, is writing to predominantly Gentile congregations. The people he is chastising, correcting, exhorting, and encouraging are Gentiles, with whom he has identified closely, “becoming a Gentile to win the Gentiles” — which presumably includes figuring out a way to think from “inside” the distinctively Gentile outlook on the world so as to persuade them effectively and steer them away from pitfalls they, as a distinct group, might be especially prone to.

We also know that Paul, in many of his letters, is writing against an attitude that regards religious observances as a way of gaining God’s favor. Read the rest of this entry »

On the abrupt ending of Acts

A prominent, yet underemphasized theme in the synoptic gospels is Jesus’ empowerment of the disciples to be like him in power and teaching — for instance, in the sending of the twelve and the seventy on their preaching mission. In contrast to later interpretations that see Jesus’ role as irreducibly unique and irreplaceable, the synoptics seem to indicate that Jesus’ goal is to make sure that the disciples can be equal to their teacher.

This theme is further expanded in Luke and particularly in Acts, where Peter, John, and Paul are able to reproduce even the most powerful miracles of Jesus and in some cases even outdo him, in a relationship reminiscent of that between Elijah and Elisha. (A sidenote: the only major one that isn’t reproduced is the feeding of the 5000, but perhaps the establishment of the communistic community in Jerusalem, where everyone has enough to eat as a result of freely sharing, is a kind of institutionalization of that miracle.)

The parallels drawn between Jesus and Paul are the strongest of all. Both raise the ire of the Jewish leaders, who then appeal to the Roman rulers to get rid of the offender. In both cases, the Roman rulers hem and haw and pass the buck, unable to find any fault. Paul’s process is much more drawn out than Jesus’, in part because his status as a Roman allows him to appeal to the emperor, an emperor who is never explicitly named and never appears. In Jesus’ case, the buck stopped with Pilate, who eventually gave in and killed Jesus. In Paul’s case, the buck stops with the emperor, who tradition tells us eventually did kill him (and Peter as well, for good measure).

In this light, perhaps the seemingly abrupt ending of Acts is, or can be read as, a literary device. After reading Luke, we know how a story like this ends and there’s no need to belabor that — but in the meantime, Paul is free to teach the gospel even in the very center of the empire.

A Return to Bible Blogging: Romans 1

I’ll admit it: I allowed my Greek New Testament reading to lapse for a few weeks. Returning to it this morning, I decided that I would cut straight to Romans, which is the book of the New Testament that most interests me. The fact that the Greek is more difficult also makes it more appealling, and already in the greeting I’ve found some strange stuff. For instance, look at the first three verses:

Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God, which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, the gospel concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to the flesh… (NRSV)

ΠΑΥΛΟΣ δοῦλος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, κλητὸς ἀπόστολος, ἀφωρισμένος εἰς εὐαγγέλιον θεοῦ ὃ προεπηγγείλατο διὰ τῶν προφητῶν αὐτοῦ ἐν γραφαῖς ἁγίαις περὶ τοῦ υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ, τοῦ γενομένου ἐκ σπέρματος Δαυεὶδ κατὰ σάρκα…

The straightforward translation of that middle part seems to be “set apart for a bringing of God’s good news which was promised by the prophets in holy writings about his son,” rather than “set apart for the gospel of God, which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, the gospel concerning his Son.” I’m basing this on the lack of definite articles, which may be a Pauline thing — but it seems to me that if we were expected to know that “περὶ τοῦ υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ” referred back to “εὐαγγέλιον,” there would be a “τον” there, and similarly, he would have used a definite article before “γραφαῖς ἁγίαις” or “εὐαγγέλιον” if he wanted to emphasize that they were the Holy Scriptures or the Gospel. (The fact that both are indefinite may actually soften the blow of implicitly relativising the Scriptures, insofar as it makes this good news of God a particular instance of good news, leaving room for the particular promises given to Israel — but that might be overreading.)